I know this has been asked but i didn’t see a clear answer.
Say you have the dollar/eur at 1.10 spot and 1.25 1 year forward. so F/S - 1 is 13.636%, which is a positive number, yet the implication is that the dollar should depreciate since it will take more dollars in one year to make a euro. Intuitively I would say this means the dollar is at a forward DISCOUNT since it will depreciate, however I think I have seen some problems refer to it as a forward premium simply because the equation is positive, so in that case premium = depreciate….
What is the consensus here?
Say you have the dollar/eur at 1.10 spot and 1.25 1 year forward. so F/S - 1 is 13.636%, which is a positive number, yet the implication is that the dollar should depreciate since it will take more dollars in one year to make a euro. Intuitively I would say this means the dollar is at a forward DISCOUNT since it will depreciate, however I think I have seen some problems refer to it as a forward premium simply because the equation is positive, so in that case premium = depreciate….
What is the consensus here?