trinianalyst
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- Dec 7, 2011
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Free Cash Flows
The CFA exams have Free Cash Flow To the Firm (FCFF) defined as:
FCFF =EBITBA X (1- TAX RATE) +(DEP X tax rate) –FIXED CAPITAL INVESTMENT- WORKING CAPITAL INVESTMENT
FCFF = NI +Depreciation - WC Inv – Fc Inv +(Interest x Tax rate)
Can you please explain to me why the full depreciation is added back and not the net depreciation.
Ie if the depreciation charge is $100 there is a tax shield of $20 (assuming tax rate if 20%) that will be realized as a tax savings in the cash flow.
For the interest we are adding back the tax shield and treating it as a chas inflow.
Why not the same treatment for depreciation?
The CFA exams have Free Cash Flow To the Firm (FCFF) defined as:
FCFF =EBITBA X (1- TAX RATE) +(DEP X tax rate) –FIXED CAPITAL INVESTMENT- WORKING CAPITAL INVESTMENT
FCFF = NI +Depreciation - WC Inv – Fc Inv +(Interest x Tax rate)
Can you please explain to me why the full depreciation is added back and not the net depreciation.
Ie if the depreciation charge is $100 there is a tax shield of $20 (assuming tax rate if 20%) that will be realized as a tax savings in the cash flow.
For the interest we are adding back the tax shield and treating it as a chas inflow.
Why not the same treatment for depreciation?