Hello,
I am a bit confused with full & partial goodwill, but if I understand well the logic behind the two concepts:
- Full goodwill assumes that the company having acquired a majority stake (controlling stake) in a subsidiary will “reap all the benefits” and thus the consolidated BS will show the goodwill calculated on the whole subsidiary.
- Partial goodwill states that goodwill can be calculated only on the portion acquired, since only this part of the company got reevaluated through the acquisiton price.
Am I right?
BTW, taking example 9 from the CFA book (p 154-156) and assuming that
- the rest (10%) of the subsidiary has been purchased on the same date for 20k $
- this investment qualifies for Investment in associates and thus will be treated with the Equity method by the minority shareholder
If I calculate goodwill on the remaining 10% with the equity method, I get a goodwill of 4k $, consistent with the fact that the difference between full and partial goodwill is 40k - 36k = 4k $. That also means that if the majority shareholder uses the full goodwill method, there will be a total of 44k $ recognized as goodwill. Is that correct?
Now concerning the noncontrolling interest: is there ANY relationship between the noncontrolling interest income or balance sheet figure and what the minority shareholder would present on its income statement/balance sheet under the equity method? I am afraid I miss the link.
Your help would be highly appreciated.
I am a bit confused with full & partial goodwill, but if I understand well the logic behind the two concepts:
- Full goodwill assumes that the company having acquired a majority stake (controlling stake) in a subsidiary will “reap all the benefits” and thus the consolidated BS will show the goodwill calculated on the whole subsidiary.
- Partial goodwill states that goodwill can be calculated only on the portion acquired, since only this part of the company got reevaluated through the acquisiton price.
Am I right?
BTW, taking example 9 from the CFA book (p 154-156) and assuming that
- the rest (10%) of the subsidiary has been purchased on the same date for 20k $
- this investment qualifies for Investment in associates and thus will be treated with the Equity method by the minority shareholder
If I calculate goodwill on the remaining 10% with the equity method, I get a goodwill of 4k $, consistent with the fact that the difference between full and partial goodwill is 40k - 36k = 4k $. That also means that if the majority shareholder uses the full goodwill method, there will be a total of 44k $ recognized as goodwill. Is that correct?
Now concerning the noncontrolling interest: is there ANY relationship between the noncontrolling interest income or balance sheet figure and what the minority shareholder would present on its income statement/balance sheet under the equity method? I am afraid I miss the link.
Your help would be highly appreciated.