Hello,
I have a questions regarding futures and arbitrage.
When the future price is undervalued, you buy the future and sells the spot. As people buy the future, the future price will go up and the arbitrage oppotunity will disapear. That’s in the book.
Now what I dont understand is how future prices can go up? I though the price of a future is calculated as such: F= Spot (1+r)
Since this is always how we calculate the price of a future, I dont see how “buying” future contracts will drive the price up. According to the formula, only the Spot price or the risk free rate can move the price of futures up. Not the demand for futures contract.
Supply and Demand influences the spot price. In any case, if the market expects demand for “oil” to increase in the future, people will buy oil now (not in the futures market) at a cheap price to sell it in the future at a higher price than anticipated by the arbitrage free formula. This will drive the spot price up, which in turn will drive the price of futures up.
What’s the point with the model explained in the buying saying that buying futures contrart or selling a lot of them will drive their prices up or down to eliminate the arbitrage opportunity? I dont get it please. I think I am missing something.
I have a questions regarding futures and arbitrage.
When the future price is undervalued, you buy the future and sells the spot. As people buy the future, the future price will go up and the arbitrage oppotunity will disapear. That’s in the book.
Now what I dont understand is how future prices can go up? I though the price of a future is calculated as such: F= Spot (1+r)
Since this is always how we calculate the price of a future, I dont see how “buying” future contracts will drive the price up. According to the formula, only the Spot price or the risk free rate can move the price of futures up. Not the demand for futures contract.
Supply and Demand influences the spot price. In any case, if the market expects demand for “oil” to increase in the future, people will buy oil now (not in the futures market) at a cheap price to sell it in the future at a higher price than anticipated by the arbitrage free formula. This will drive the spot price up, which in turn will drive the price of futures up.
What’s the point with the model explained in the buying saying that buying futures contrart or selling a lot of them will drive their prices up or down to eliminate the arbitrage opportunity? I dont get it please. I think I am missing something.