In the estate planning reading (12), the text discusses two scenarios when comparing whether one should gift now or bequest in the future, and the impact of taxes. (i) when the receiver pays the gift tax and (ii) when the donor pays.
It seems to me that in order to compare, gifting vs bequeathing should be treated as mutually exclusive…you wouldn’t have anything to bequest if its already been gifted, right?!? And this holds i feel like until the formula that accounts for the reduction in taxes if the donor pays them and the related increase to the receiver. I understand what it’s capturing but I feel like it violates the comparison bc if you say we’re gifting then you wouldn’t have an estate left to tax!
That make any sense?
It seems to me that in order to compare, gifting vs bequeathing should be treated as mutually exclusive…you wouldn’t have anything to bequest if its already been gifted, right?!? And this holds i feel like until the formula that accounts for the reduction in taxes if the donor pays them and the related increase to the receiver. I understand what it’s capturing but I feel like it violates the comparison bc if you say we’re gifting then you wouldn’t have an estate left to tax!
That make any sense?