Are these statements inconsistent? All taken from CFAI material
1. Reading 19 “If the currency exposures of foreign assets could be perfectly and costlessly hedged, the hedge would completely neutralize the effect of currency movements on the portfolio’s domestic-currency return (RDC)…. meaning that the domestic-currency return is then equal to the foreign-currency return (RDC = RFC)”
2. Reading 19 ..also goes on to say if foreign market returns are hedged (without hedging fx), then the domestic return is equal to foreign risk free rate. However if both the market return and the foreign currency are hedged, the hedged return is the domestic risk free rate.
3. Reading 23 “If the investor can hedge fully then the (fully) hedged return, is equal to the sum of domestic risk free rate plus the forward discount (premium).”
1. Reading 19 “If the currency exposures of foreign assets could be perfectly and costlessly hedged, the hedge would completely neutralize the effect of currency movements on the portfolio’s domestic-currency return (RDC)…. meaning that the domestic-currency return is then equal to the foreign-currency return (RDC = RFC)”
2. Reading 19 ..also goes on to say if foreign market returns are hedged (without hedging fx), then the domestic return is equal to foreign risk free rate. However if both the market return and the foreign currency are hedged, the hedged return is the domestic risk free rate.
3. Reading 23 “If the investor can hedge fully then the (fully) hedged return, is equal to the sum of domestic risk free rate plus the forward discount (premium).”