Please someone answer the following concepts as i want clarification.
1. if someone acts on the rumour and do the necessary research afterwards on the rumour to do the required due dilegince and research. Acting upon rumour+along with necessary research, is it violation of nonpublic information or is it ok to act upon it
2.In reversal market, i have an understanding that constant mix will perform well but if someone wants to maintain the allocation of money between equities and cash all the time then which will perform well (Constant mix or Buy Hold). I have an understanding that constant mix does not have any floor value so there is a chance that cash value will go to zero?
3. When you need to find the Volume weighted effective spread, do we subsitute vwap in place of midqoute in the effective spread or we just use the normal effective spread formula and in the end take volume of each trade. i read somewhere that you can subsitute vwap in the formula as reference in place of mid qoute.
4.Why do we always say that spread need to increase of foreign bond in order to eliminated the advantage of foreign bond. Why is it the increase, shouldnt it be decrease because foreign bond is already higher on the spread ?
1. if someone acts on the rumour and do the necessary research afterwards on the rumour to do the required due dilegince and research. Acting upon rumour+along with necessary research, is it violation of nonpublic information or is it ok to act upon it
2.In reversal market, i have an understanding that constant mix will perform well but if someone wants to maintain the allocation of money between equities and cash all the time then which will perform well (Constant mix or Buy Hold). I have an understanding that constant mix does not have any floor value so there is a chance that cash value will go to zero?
3. When you need to find the Volume weighted effective spread, do we subsitute vwap in place of midqoute in the effective spread or we just use the normal effective spread formula and in the end take volume of each trade. i read somewhere that you can subsitute vwap in the formula as reference in place of mid qoute.
4.Why do we always say that spread need to increase of foreign bond in order to eliminated the advantage of foreign bond. Why is it the increase, shouldnt it be decrease because foreign bond is already higher on the spread ?