I have read that if the after tax yield is greater than the earnings yield, eps would fall as a result of repurchase of stock and vice-versa. I have understood the calculations in the solved examples but cannot understand the intution behind the statement.
I want to know as to why eps falls if after tax yield>earnings yield?
Can anyone please explain?
I want to know as to why eps falls if after tax yield>earnings yield?
Can anyone please explain?