Impairment of Assets

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I have seen a few different methods (from different study providers… sigh) for impairing assets, which is super confusing. So for the sake of accuracy, I’m using Flashback’s method here: http://www.analystforum.com/forums/cfa-forums/cfa-level-i-forum/91346665
Could someone kindly just check if this is right (it looks right to me)?
I’m assuming:
Carrying Value = Net Book Value,
Selling Price = Fair Value, and
Net Realizable Value = Fair Value - Selling Costs
IFRS - Impairment 1 step approach

Asset should be impaired if its BV (cost of purchase - accumulated depreciation if exists) is > recoverable amount.
Recoverable amount is greater (higher amount) of:
a) fair value - cost of selling
and
b) value in use (PV of future CF thus DCF value)
Loss reversals are permitted but only to the original amount of prior impairment.
USGAAP - Impairment 2 steps approach

1. step - recoverability test - asset should be impaired if its BV > undiscounted future cash flows
2 .step - impaired asset is written down to fair value (loss is excess of BV - fair value) or discounted future cash flows, which is greater
Loss reversals are not permitted under USGAAP.
 
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