The question asks for after-tax nominal rate of return that is required for the next year.
So rate of return = net cash flow / investable assets
I have seen an answer (past paper 2008 question 1) that uses: year 1 net cash flow / year 0 investable assets.
Why are we using year 0 investable assets?
So rate of return = net cash flow / investable assets
I have seen an answer (past paper 2008 question 1) that uses: year 1 net cash flow / year 0 investable assets.
Why are we using year 0 investable assets?