Maybe I am just brain jamed, but why is this true? dont you incorporate profit and expense from your associates when you do your accounting, like in acquisition and equity method?
The calculation for interest coverage is EBIT/interest expense, neither of which is affected by the investment in associates.
On another note, if you are looking at asset turnover rate after excluding your investment in associate, which is sales/asset, why would you only modify the number of asset but not touching the sales, i think i might be confused in general what item change what not in investment in associate?
someone please explain thanks
The calculation for interest coverage is EBIT/interest expense, neither of which is affected by the investment in associates.
On another note, if you are looking at asset turnover rate after excluding your investment in associate, which is sales/asset, why would you only modify the number of asset but not touching the sales, i think i might be confused in general what item change what not in investment in associate?
someone please explain thanks