Hi everyone,
I am having some difficulties with the following question (from Investopedia):
You are currently reviewing the following information for JKL Corp.:
Starting date of lease:
Jan 1st, 2002
Annual year-end lease payments:
$32,000
Term of Lease:
5 years
Buy-back value at end of term:
$55,000
Interest rate implicit on the lease:
11%
Interest rate on company’s general debt:
13%
If the company uses the capitalized lease method of accounting, what would be the interest expense during the second year of the inception of the lease?
A) $14,490
B) $15,750
C) $14,906
The Right Answer is a. Your answer was c, and was incorrect.
Explanation:
Interest expense = (Beginning Book Value of Capitalized Lease) x (Effective interest rate)
= (131,727) x (11%)
= $14,490
Why are they using the book value of the asset to compute the interest expense. Instead, I would have computed the value of lease liability in the second year as:
150,909+ 150,909*0.11 -32,000= PV- PV*int -LeasePayment=135,508.47
And then I would have multiplied that number to get the 2nd year interest expense:
134,443.47*0.11=14,905.93
Using the AMORT function on the calulator, I also get that numer for the 2nd year. Isn’t this the correct approach?
I am having some difficulties with the following question (from Investopedia):
You are currently reviewing the following information for JKL Corp.:
Starting date of lease:
Jan 1st, 2002
Annual year-end lease payments:
$32,000
Term of Lease:
5 years
Buy-back value at end of term:
$55,000
Interest rate implicit on the lease:
11%
Interest rate on company’s general debt:
13%
If the company uses the capitalized lease method of accounting, what would be the interest expense during the second year of the inception of the lease?
A) $14,490
B) $15,750
C) $14,906
The Right Answer is a. Your answer was c, and was incorrect.
Explanation:
Interest expense = (Beginning Book Value of Capitalized Lease) x (Effective interest rate)
= (131,727) x (11%)
= $14,490
Why are they using the book value of the asset to compute the interest expense. Instead, I would have computed the value of lease liability in the second year as:
150,909+ 150,909*0.11 -32,000= PV- PV*int -LeasePayment=135,508.47
And then I would have multiplied that number to get the 2nd year interest expense:
134,443.47*0.11=14,905.93
Using the AMORT function on the calulator, I also get that numer for the 2nd year. Isn’t this the correct approach?