This is from the self-test of the Currency Risk Management topic, Book 4 of Schweser.
“A decrease in the domestic interest rate would result in an increased value in the domestic currency as reflected in a lower futures rate.
This can be observed in the IRP equation with the domestic currency in the numerator and the foreign currency in the denominator.”
Here’s what I’m puzzled over: It is my understand that countries with high interest rates (high but not hyper-inflation high) would attract foreign capital as it’d be more attractive to invest in, resulting in an appreciation of currency due to increased demand.
Why does IRP seem to contradict this?
“A decrease in the domestic interest rate would result in an increased value in the domestic currency as reflected in a lower futures rate.
This can be observed in the IRP equation with the domestic currency in the numerator and the foreign currency in the denominator.”
Here’s what I’m puzzled over: It is my understand that countries with high interest rates (high but not hyper-inflation high) would attract foreign capital as it’d be more attractive to invest in, resulting in an appreciation of currency due to increased demand.
Why does IRP seem to contradict this?