Just to let you know...

E

exemplaria

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If you failed, it's because:

You didn't answer enough questions correctly!

But good luck to all.
 
Thanks Exemp. I thought it was because I was dumb...but you make us feel so much better :)
 
I'm trying to premept the barrage of posts that will ensue post-results release. It's probably in vain, but I feel I owe it to the community.
 
great...somebody feeling like they are doing us a service by stating the obvious.
 
OK, how about:

If you failed...

it's because they gave you a bunch of wrong answers...
 
Just you wait, Ping, just you wait. I can almost hear it now:

"Why did I fail? The 40/60/80 method said I got 66%! My friend only got 61% on the 4-6-8 and passed!"
 
Okay, how about this....

if you failed....

its because CFA test is hard and passing rate is only 33%...
 
What we have on this here exam is a classic "bubble allocation problem"

Historically, letter D has given the highest return... but past performance is no guarantee of future results.
 
I hear ya....but I won't be here to see it....once results come out, peace out to all. I have to get off this board before the IT folks start asking questions
 
I think we'll get the results tomorrow but, in any case, we'll know by next Monday at the latest.
 
I don't want to leave you in the dark jstewar6 since in about 12 hours it is probably going to be 40/60/80 mania on this board.

Besides its renowned ability to find the G spot, the 40/60/80 method is something people use to try and figure out what they scored on the exam since CFAI doesn't give you a score but rather ranges of scores. I will warn you that it is wildly inaccurate. If you can't figure out why, quit the CFA program as soon as possible.

There are three ranges given for each area of the subject matter: <50%, 50-70%, and >70%. Using these ranges, you can assume you scored 40% for any <50% section, 60% for the 50-70% and 80% for the >70%. Then, you take the weighted average of your section scores to compute a theoretical score for yourself. You will see hundreds of post here tomorrow asking questions like the one in exemp's post above.
 
Well you are dealing with a Left Skewed distribution for the first mean (<50%), a 10% SD for the second mean and a right skewed distribution for the 3rd mean (>70%), it should be a plus or minus many percent to put it in perspective.
 
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