From Qbank:
An analyst gathered the following data for Alice Company.
A)
liability will increase by $4,000.
B)
will remain unchanged.
C)
asset will increase by $4,000.
The correct answer was C) asset will increase by $4,000.
Since only $10,000 of the rent expense will be allowed per tax returns, a deferred tax asset of $4,000 will result ($10,000 × 40%).
What I don’t understand is why it’s an asset created? From reading the question it sounds like they’re paying an actual tax bill of 4000, but writing down the full 8000 tax bill on their reporting. This would imply a future cash outflow, therefore a DTL…?
An analyst gathered the following data for Alice Company.
- Alice Company reported a pretax income of $400,000 in its income statement for the period ended December 31, 2002.
- Included in its pretax income are: (1) interest received on tax-free municipal bonds $50,000 and (2) rent expense of $20,000. (Only $10,000 was paid in cash for rent during 2002).
- Alice follows cash basis for tax reporting.
- Assume a tax rate of 40%.
A)
liability will increase by $4,000.
B)
will remain unchanged.
C)
asset will increase by $4,000.
The correct answer was C) asset will increase by $4,000.
Since only $10,000 of the rent expense will be allowed per tax returns, a deferred tax asset of $4,000 will result ($10,000 × 40%).
What I don’t understand is why it’s an asset created? From reading the question it sounds like they’re paying an actual tax bill of 4000, but writing down the full 8000 tax bill on their reporting. This would imply a future cash outflow, therefore a DTL…?