ELAN makes a note saying “an increase in short term rates would cause the most significant reduction in the value of a ladder portfolio…”
I’m confused, is this an error? I understand a ladder portfolio as having maturities evenly distributed thereby hedging risk. Why would short term rates cause a greater reduction than barbell or bullet?
I’m confused, is this an error? I understand a ladder portfolio as having maturities evenly distributed thereby hedging risk. Why would short term rates cause a greater reduction than barbell or bullet?