We have N times about the duration of leveraged portfolio.
Is LADG(leverage-adjusted duration gap) equal to the duration of Banks’ equity? Why?
The two formulas look different. Wait for answer…thanks.
I always intepreted them as the same…. if there is a positive LADG, that means your equity that is exposed to interest rates….aka if it goes up you lose value.
LADG = Aset duration - (debt weighting*debt duration)
I think it does = the equity duration. Reason being LADG*equity value*basis point yield curve shift = CHANGE in value of equity.
?
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