JMI has issued a $12 million leveraged floater with semi-annual interest payments. The rate is 1.2 times LIBOR. the firm is planning to hedge the risk of this note with a bond paying 6 percent and a swap with a fixed rate of 4.4%. The net semi-annual cash flow is closest to what?
The answer uses this equation: multiplier X Vfloater X (Cbond-Swap fixed rate)
I’ve never seen this equation before. What about the other side of the swap? Not even a mention of that. I really do not understand this question at all. Please help.
The answer uses this equation: multiplier X Vfloater X (Cbond-Swap fixed rate)
I’ve never seen this equation before. What about the other side of the swap? Not even a mention of that. I really do not understand this question at all. Please help.