For those of you with the Kaplan Schweser 2012 notes, it may help to refer to Figure 5 on p211 of the Fixed Inc/Derivatives book for my question.
I’m looking for guidance on the below:
We discount the exercise price (X) by the Risk Free Rate for the minimum value of a European & American Call and for a European Put (assuming it’s >0), and for the maximum value of a European Put.
The Exercise Price (X) of an American Put is not discounted (minimum value or Maximum). This makes sense as it’s immediately exercisable when it is in the money.
What I would like is a bit more info on why we need to discount X at the risk free rate on an American Call.
Thanks
I’m looking for guidance on the below:
We discount the exercise price (X) by the Risk Free Rate for the minimum value of a European & American Call and for a European Put (assuming it’s >0), and for the maximum value of a European Put.
The Exercise Price (X) of an American Put is not discounted (minimum value or Maximum). This makes sense as it’s immediately exercisable when it is in the money.
What I would like is a bit more info on why we need to discount X at the risk free rate on an American Call.
Thanks