This is what I don’t understand.
If there is a strong positive correlation of FC and HC, this leads to a more conservative asset allocation and less need for life insurance.
A classic example of this issue is the investor who concentrates his portfolio holdings in the stock of his employer. He has linked both his future income and portfolio return to the same company. Ideally he would reduce the holding of employer stock to lower the correlation of FC and HC, but if this is not possible, any other FC assets should shift to lower risk. In this case of positively correlated HC and FC, the HC calculation should reflect a higher, riskier discount rate, which lowers the HC and therefore lowers the life insurance need.
I can’t get the point that if I invest in my employers stock, I’d need less life insurance.