Q31 of The Afternoon Mock Exam for Dec 11 candidates, makes a strange claim about estimator consistency increasing with increasing sample size. I'm not allowed to quote the question without violating CFA rules but does anyone else find the explanation of why B is correct to be unsatisfactory? Surely an estimator is either consistent or it is not, there is no measure of consistency.
Sorry for the double post, can't figure out how to delete a post only edit one.
Sorry for the double post, can't figure out how to delete a post only edit one.