archived_user
New member
- Jun 18, 2026
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I understand this – sort of
the only thing i don’t get is why is it so bad. if all of the individual independent variables are not significantly different from zero, but the total regression equation has a high F-test and high correlation, why not use it? why is it a problem to have the value of the whole be more than the value of the parts?
it says it creates type II errors, how so?
the only thing i don’t get is why is it so bad. if all of the individual independent variables are not significantly different from zero, but the total regression equation has a high F-test and high correlation, why not use it? why is it a problem to have the value of the whole be more than the value of the parts?
it says it creates type II errors, how so?