Please help may be I am over complicating issues but I do not get it; I do not understand how translation of foreign entities in a hyper inflationary environment under US GAAP is described as; “US GAAP simply require the foreign currency financial statements of such an entity to be translated as if the parent currency is the functional currency;the temporal method must be used” Is this simply a requirement or there is a characteristic or property of the temporal method that is appealing for this preference? Example; what if the functional currency of the foreign entity is Swiss Francs and the parent company functional currency is US$ what is the process of translating to the presentation currency. Thanks for your help!