If you have a very secured job you would discount your future cash flows by a lower discount rate which makes larger the amount you need to insurance.
Is this reasoning correct? First thought I have was is that if a I have a 100% secured job I do not need to insurance it, but what you really protecting is the risk of mortality.
Is this reasoning correct? First thought I have was is that if a I have a 100% secured job I do not need to insurance it, but what you really protecting is the risk of mortality.