Hi guys,
Suppose we need to decide between two mutually exclusive investments i.e. we can either reject both or select one of either but not select both. Now if if NPV of X is higher than NPV of Y but IRR of X is lower than that of Y, in that case we chose NPV criteria and accept X.
For example:
Investment Cash inflow at t = 1 IRR NPV@10%
Y - 5000 8000 60% 2272.72
X - 30000 40,000 33% 6363.64
The reason for going for NPV criteria is that it indicates the increase in shareholder's wealth. Like in above case the shareholders will gain more if investment X is made though the IRR is lesser.
Another explanation for going for preferring NPV criteria over IRR criteria is because NPV method implicitly assumes that the rate at which cash flows can be reinvested is the cost fo capital whereas the IRR method assumes that the firm can reinvest @ IRR.
Can somebody explain to me how the above mentioned italicized explanation ?
Thanks in advance
Vaibhav.
Suppose we need to decide between two mutually exclusive investments i.e. we can either reject both or select one of either but not select both. Now if if NPV of X is higher than NPV of Y but IRR of X is lower than that of Y, in that case we chose NPV criteria and accept X.
For example:
Investment Cash inflow at t = 1 IRR NPV@10%
Y - 5000 8000 60% 2272.72
X - 30000 40,000 33% 6363.64
The reason for going for NPV criteria is that it indicates the increase in shareholder's wealth. Like in above case the shareholders will gain more if investment X is made though the IRR is lesser.
Another explanation for going for preferring NPV criteria over IRR criteria is because NPV method implicitly assumes that the rate at which cash flows can be reinvested is the cost fo capital whereas the IRR method assumes that the firm can reinvest @ IRR.
Can somebody explain to me how the above mentioned italicized explanation ?
Thanks in advance
Vaibhav.