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If the OAS is 130bp instead of 150bp you’re earning a lower return than you should: the bond’s overpriced.pass hungry wroteoes the perspective you take on these matter?
For example you’ve got a bond with a OAS 130, yet a comparable bonds OAS is 150 (everything else identical).
To me, this would mean that the 130 is undervalued? You’re getting compensated 20 bp’s more with the 150? I know the answer is the opposite, but I can’t figure out why?
Thanks!
I was confused on this for a while. Just remember, OAS is a SPREAD measure pegged off of something else.pass hungry wrote:
Does the perspective you take on these matter?
For example you’ve got a bond with a OAS 130, yet a comparable bonds OAS is 150 (everything else identical).
To me, this would mean that the 130 is undervalued? You’re getting compensated 20 bp’s more with the 150? I know the answer is the opposite, but I can’t figure out why?
Thanks!
prices aren’t the same, thats what makes the OAS’s different in your example.pass hungry wrote:
Got it. So I guess another assumption you’re making is that the price of the two bonds is the same.
I know obvious statement, but not so obvious in the context.
No. If bond A and bond B have essentially identical risks, they should have nearly identical OASs. If bond A pays a 4.5% coupon and bond B pays a 5.2% coupon, they shouldn’t have the same price. The two ideas are independent.pass hungry wrote:Got it. So I guess another assumption you’re making is that the price of the two bonds is the same.
I know obvious statement, but not so obvious in the context.
I think i’m missing a lot of bits and pieces to OAS…S2000magician wrote:
If the OAS is 130bp instead of 150bp you’re earning a lower return than you should: the bond’s overpriced.pass hungry wroteoes the perspective you take on these matter?
For example you’ve got a bond with a OAS 130, yet a comparable bonds OAS is 150 (everything else identical).
To me, this would mean that the 130 is undervalued? You’re getting compensated 20 bp’s more with the 150? I know the answer is the opposite, but I can’t figure out why?
Thanks!
Higher yield = higher discount rate = lower price.
RayJay wrote:
[I think i’m missing a lot of bits and pieces to OAS…
OAS is the additional spread/yield for having REMOVED an embedded option.
Higher OAS is better because it means you are getting a higher yield and lower and cheaper prices relative to benchmark and sometimes required OAS.
Also applying it to a binomial tree you have to shift the curve instead of just adding the spread to all the spots? (if that’s correct I don’t really know what that means) You add (and keep adjusting) the same OAS to the each and every spot rate on the curve until you equalise the PV of the tree to current underlying asset price.
No.RayJay wrote:
I think i’m missing a lot of bits and pieces to OAS…S2000magician wrote:
If the OAS is 130bp instead of 150bp you’re earning a lower return than you should: the bond’s overpriced.pass hungry wroteoes the perspective you take on these matter?
For example you’ve got a bond with a OAS 130, yet a comparable bonds OAS is 150 (everything else identical).
To me, this would mean that the 130 is undervalued? You’re getting compensated 20 bp’s more with the 150? I know the answer is the opposite, but I can’t figure out why?
Thanks!
Higher yield = higher discount rate = lower price.
OAS is the additional spread/yield for having an embedded option?
Yes.RayJay wrote:Higher OAS is better because it means you are getting a higher yield?
Shifting the curve and adding the same spread to each of the spots mean the same thing.RayJay wrote:Also applying it to a binomial tree you have to shift the curve instead of just adding the spread to all the spots? (if that’s correct I don’t really know what that means)
I got this wrong on the mock. But glad I did, because forced me to learn those spreads better.Xander086 wrote:
Yes, so you can compare it to the Z-spread of a comparable option-free bond which is the required OAS and make relative valuation.