Atomic_Sheep
New member
- May 5, 2014
- 0
- 0
Hello,
1.) Was reading about NPV and the opportunity cost of capital question stumped me somewhat. If we have two independent projects, and if the IRR and NPV rules conflict, we should use the NPV rule to decide on the investment. In the example provided in the textbook:
Project Investment at t = 0 Cash Flow at t=1 IRR(%) NPV at 8%
A -10,000 15,000 50 3,888.89
B -30,000 42,000 40 8,888.89
In this case, we should invest in project B. However, I was thinking… why not invest in A and put the remaining money into a bank account? Perhaps this alternative will produce a higher NPV than investing 30,000 in project B alone? So basically, the question when it comes to NPV analysis is, why do we not consider the opportunity cost of capital in the calculations?
2.) The second question is in relation to IRR. When we find IRR, how do we know that the value we get accounts for all the components of risk i.e.
r = real risk free interest rate + inflation premium + default risk premium + Liquidity premium + maturity premium
The way I see it, when we find r using the IRR formula, we are basically assuming that all the risks are included? Seems to me to be an odd assumption.
1.) Was reading about NPV and the opportunity cost of capital question stumped me somewhat. If we have two independent projects, and if the IRR and NPV rules conflict, we should use the NPV rule to decide on the investment. In the example provided in the textbook:
Project Investment at t = 0 Cash Flow at t=1 IRR(%) NPV at 8%
A -10,000 15,000 50 3,888.89
B -30,000 42,000 40 8,888.89
In this case, we should invest in project B. However, I was thinking… why not invest in A and put the remaining money into a bank account? Perhaps this alternative will produce a higher NPV than investing 30,000 in project B alone? So basically, the question when it comes to NPV analysis is, why do we not consider the opportunity cost of capital in the calculations?
2.) The second question is in relation to IRR. When we find IRR, how do we know that the value we get accounts for all the components of risk i.e.
r = real risk free interest rate + inflation premium + default risk premium + Liquidity premium + maturity premium
The way I see it, when we find r using the IRR formula, we are basically assuming that all the risks are included? Seems to me to be an odd assumption.