The Song of the
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- Jun 18, 2026
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My (obviously incorrect ) intuition is that greater correllations between assets should result in a *narrower* corridor since there is less diversification. I have memorized that higher correlations with the rest of the portfolio - for example in CFA AM 2010 Q8 - actually does result in a wider portfolio. The explanation given is that “when asset classes move together, further divergence from targets is less likely, allwing a wiser optimal corridor width…”
It seems obvious that, for example, higher transaction costs result in a wider corridor, but this isn’t as logical. Anyone have an inutitive way to approach this area?
It seems obvious that, for example, higher transaction costs result in a wider corridor, but this isn’t as logical. Anyone have an inutitive way to approach this area?