Quick clarification question.
So the optimal hedge ratio for the currency hedge on a foreign asset (or minimum variance hedge) equals 1 + the beta of the asset to the LC.
So is the optimal hedge ratio, once you add 1 + the beta of the asset to the LC = the beta of the foreign asset to the DC?
So the optimal hedge ratio for the currency hedge on a foreign asset (or minimum variance hedge) equals 1 + the beta of the asset to the LC.
So is the optimal hedge ratio, once you add 1 + the beta of the asset to the LC = the beta of the foreign asset to the DC?