bluebird.91
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- Jun 18, 2026
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Hi everyone, I was going through the 2012 morning CFA mock exam for Level 1. Under the Economics section there was a question as follows:
“Demand for a good is most likely to be more elastic when:
A. the good is a necessity.
B. a lesser proportion of income is spent on the good.
C. the adjustment to a price change takes a longer time.
Answer: C
C is correct. The longer the time that has elapsed since a price change, the more elastic demand is. For example, if gas prices rise, consumers cannot quickly change their mode of transportation”
If it takes time for consumers to adjust to a price change, wouldn’t that make the demand for the good more inelastic? According to their explanation, the percentage decrease in QD would be greater than the percentage increase in Price of gasoline. I.e. a price rise would cause total expenditure on gasoline to decrease.
Wouldn’t the opposite be the case (longer time for adjustments would make the demand for the good inelastic). Is their explanation wrong? If not, can anyone explain where I am thinking wrong. Thanks in advance.
“Demand for a good is most likely to be more elastic when:
A. the good is a necessity.
B. a lesser proportion of income is spent on the good.
C. the adjustment to a price change takes a longer time.
Answer: C
C is correct. The longer the time that has elapsed since a price change, the more elastic demand is. For example, if gas prices rise, consumers cannot quickly change their mode of transportation”
If it takes time for consumers to adjust to a price change, wouldn’t that make the demand for the good more inelastic? According to their explanation, the percentage decrease in QD would be greater than the percentage increase in Price of gasoline. I.e. a price rise would cause total expenditure on gasoline to decrease.
Wouldn’t the opposite be the case (longer time for adjustments would make the demand for the good inelastic). Is their explanation wrong? If not, can anyone explain where I am thinking wrong. Thanks in advance.