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No, protective put does, but a covered call is considered a yield enhacement strategy. You have the underlying and you sell a call otm ( better) and you get the premium for the sell. This increase your “yield” earn by your position if the call is not exercised.danv0330 wroteon’t both provide a floor to your investment? I came across this question and it bothered me.. I think it was in one of the PM mocks implying that only the protective put does..
this is my point here - if your underlying is $100 and you sell a call and receive $2.. isn’t the “floor” $2 if the stock goes to zero? yes the loss is huge but its _still a floor??AmruthSundarkumar wrote:The stock price can fall to zero and you’ll lose money. Your gains are capped to the premium received. In a way, it provides a floor because the stock price can’t go negative but it isn’t a floor in general since you lose money real bad if the stock price keeps falling.
I too got this question wrong due to your exact logic. The only way I can justify this was that the floor or ceiling refers to a stock price, rather than a certain total value. Not sure if that’s the way to approach it, but that’s all I can muster updanv0330 wrote:
this is my point here - if your underlying is $100 and you sell a call and receive $2.. isn’t the “floor” $2 if the stock goes to zero? yes the loss is huge but its _still a floor??AmruthSundarkumar wrote:The stock price can fall to zero and you’ll lose money. Your gains are capped to the premium received. In a way, it provides a floor because the stock price can’t go negative but it isn’t a floor in general since you lose money real bad if the stock price keeps falling.
i wont get this question wrong if it comes up on the exam but seems to be an issue of semantics here.. in other scenarios the preimum received could be substantial.. what if your stock is at $100 and you sell long dated $50 calls and receive $55 in premium.. is that a covered call and would that premium income be considered a floor?
That’s exactly what it means.Mosstastic wrote:
I too got this question wrong due to your exact logic. The only way I can justify this was that the floor or ceiling refers to a stock price, rather than a certain total value. Not sure if that’s the way to approach it, but that’s all I can muster updanv0330 wrote:
this is my point here - if your underlying is $100 and you sell a call and receive $2.. isn’t the “floor” $2 if the stock goes to zero? yes the loss is huge but its _still a floor??AmruthSundarkumar wrote:The stock price can fall to zero and you’ll lose money. Your gains are capped to the premium received. In a way, it provides a floor because the stock price can’t go negative but it isn’t a floor in general since you lose money real bad if the stock price keeps falling.
i wont get this question wrong if it comes up on the exam but seems to be an issue of semantics here.. in other scenarios the preimum received could be substantial.. what if your stock is at $100 and you sell long dated $50 calls and receive $55 in premium.. is that a covered call and would that premium income be considered a floor?
A covered call means writing a call. It’s a ceiling on price, not a floor.AmruthSundarkumar wrote:Then I’ll rephrase it. A covered call gives you a floor on the sense that it gives a stop loss. A stock is @ 100 and the atm call @ 5. So you start making a loss if the stock goes below 95. In other words, 95 is your stop loss or in a sense, your floor.