pure sector allocation

kvjay

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The formula is as follow:
sum (Wpj - Wbj)(rbj - rb)
The explanation was that assumption- PM will held the same security in p/folio as in benchmark and in the same proportion as in benchmark
My Question:
If that is the case dont the first part of the formula will be always zero (Wpj - Wbj) ?? Pls help if I miss anything, thx
 
If sector allocation is to determine the amount of alpha derived from the manager’s active decision to overweight or underweight (the sector), meeting the benchmark’s allocation would mean there was 0 value added from this decision.
 
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