yasser almansoor
New member
- Jun 18, 2026
- 0
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Hi gus
i have a note and i hope that you correct it for me
when they came to explained the call-put forward parity( page 98, book 6) , they remove the underlying price by assumed that we go a long contract and long RF bond.
then they proved that the results are identical under any condtion, after that they mentioned the value of portfolio (protective put with forward) = forward price/ (1+RF)+ P0 (equation 13)
my questions are
1- if we are long the Bond, that means we are a lender so the position is must be a (negative) forward/ (1=RF), why they ignor the sign? and states it as forward price/ (1+RF)+ Po
2- why they didn’t write the forward contrac position, is it because it has a zero value?
i have a note and i hope that you correct it for me
when they came to explained the call-put forward parity( page 98, book 6) , they remove the underlying price by assumed that we go a long contract and long RF bond.
then they proved that the results are identical under any condtion, after that they mentioned the value of portfolio (protective put with forward) = forward price/ (1+RF)+ P0 (equation 13)
my questions are
1- if we are long the Bond, that means we are a lender so the position is must be a (negative) forward/ (1=RF), why they ignor the sign? and states it as forward price/ (1+RF)+ Po
2- why they didn’t write the forward contrac position, is it because it has a zero value?