Suppose an investor has 60 percent accuracy in forecasting bull market and 80 percent accuracy in forecasting bear market (a 60–80 timer).
If the observation is bull market, then 0.60 (forecast accuracy for bull markets) is compared with a random number (between 0 and 1). If the random number is less than 0.60, which occurs with a 60 percent probability, then the market timer is assumed to have correctly predicted bull market and her return for that first observation is the market return. If the random number is greater than 0.60, then the market timer is assumed to have made an error and predicted bear market; her return for that observation is the risk-free rate.
Why the random number is less than 0.60 then the market timer is assumed to have correctly predicted bull market?
If the observation is bull market, then 0.60 (forecast accuracy for bull markets) is compared with a random number (between 0 and 1). If the random number is less than 0.60, which occurs with a 60 percent probability, then the market timer is assumed to have correctly predicted bull market and her return for that first observation is the market return. If the random number is greater than 0.60, then the market timer is assumed to have made an error and predicted bear market; her return for that observation is the risk-free rate.
Why the random number is less than 0.60 then the market timer is assumed to have correctly predicted bull market?