This is in reference to Book 2 Economics page 120 Figure 1a.
I'm quite stumped here. I've searched online as well and the material I found was not too helpful hence I've decided to ask here.
If you look at Figure 1a, you will see figure for short run output of a monoplistic firm. They are able to make a nice chunk of change from P*-C*.
Now look at Fig1b. This is what the firm will look like because of competition from new entrants (or the threat of) which causes C*= P * which causes economic profit to equal zero.
I know the golden rule of efficiency is: P = MC = MR = LRATC (Long run ATC)
However, MR=MC=P on either fig1a or fig1b is *lower* than P*,C* and even ATC. This obviously violates the "golden rule".
Anyone have any ideas what I am missing?
(Btw, if the "golden rule" is stated many times but you can find it on pg 130 in the first paragraph of LOS23.g.
Thanks in advance!
I'm quite stumped here. I've searched online as well and the material I found was not too helpful hence I've decided to ask here.
If you look at Figure 1a, you will see figure for short run output of a monoplistic firm. They are able to make a nice chunk of change from P*-C*.
Now look at Fig1b. This is what the firm will look like because of competition from new entrants (or the threat of) which causes C*= P * which causes economic profit to equal zero.
I know the golden rule of efficiency is: P = MC = MR = LRATC (Long run ATC)
However, MR=MC=P on either fig1a or fig1b is *lower* than P*,C* and even ATC. This obviously violates the "golden rule".
Anyone have any ideas what I am missing?
(Btw, if the "golden rule" is stated many times but you can find it on pg 130 in the first paragraph of LOS23.g.
Thanks in advance!