As the correlation between the risky asset and the income flow increases, the ex ante value of human capital to the surviving family decreases.
What does this mean? I know that the demand for insurance decreases as HC decreases but I don’t get why HC decreases in the statement above. If the correlation between risky asset and income increases, would you not want more life insurance to hedge?
What does this mean? I know that the demand for insurance decreases as HC decreases but I don’t get why HC decreases in the statement above. If the correlation between risky asset and income increases, would you not want more life insurance to hedge?