Okay here is what might seem like a really dumb questions I have…
In the example 9 of CFAI text book 5, page 54, question 3 asks why the situation of oil spot price being higher than oil future price might exist. And the solution to this question points to the oil producers real option. Here is the solution:
“Oil producers hold valuable real options to produce or not to produce. They may not exercise this option unless spot prices begin to rise. Production may occur only if futures prices are below the current spot price, which is associated with a downward-sloping term structure of futures prices.”
My question is - Why would oil producers only produce when the futures price is lower than the spot price? Wouldn’t this imply a bleak outlook on the price in the future? I am not sure how this “real option” concept is related to backwardation.
In the example 9 of CFAI text book 5, page 54, question 3 asks why the situation of oil spot price being higher than oil future price might exist. And the solution to this question points to the oil producers real option. Here is the solution:
“Oil producers hold valuable real options to produce or not to produce. They may not exercise this option unless spot prices begin to rise. Production may occur only if futures prices are below the current spot price, which is associated with a downward-sloping term structure of futures prices.”
My question is - Why would oil producers only produce when the futures price is lower than the spot price? Wouldn’t this imply a bleak outlook on the price in the future? I am not sure how this “real option” concept is related to backwardation.