“The higher the volatility of a given asset class, the narrower the optimal corridor.”
This seems counterintuitive. Wouldn’t a narrower corridor trigger excessive re-balancing and associated transaction costs in this case? Hence, shouldn’t the optimal corridor be wider?
Would appreciate any insight on this.
Thanks.
This seems counterintuitive. Wouldn’t a narrower corridor trigger excessive re-balancing and associated transaction costs in this case? Hence, shouldn’t the optimal corridor be wider?
Would appreciate any insight on this.
Thanks.