archived_user
New member
- Jun 18, 2026
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Hi
In relation to the following equation:
risky asset + derivative = risk-free asset
If the long and short position on a perfect hedge offset exactly, can someone please explain why it is assumed that a return at the risk free rate is generated? i.e. why is the return not 0 as opposed to the risk free rate?
Many thanks
In relation to the following equation:
risky asset + derivative = risk-free asset
If the long and short position on a perfect hedge offset exactly, can someone please explain why it is assumed that a return at the risk free rate is generated? i.e. why is the return not 0 as opposed to the risk free rate?
Many thanks