Looking at Schweser reading 36 pg 208 for this. The question (only selected parts) says:
Calculate the intrinsic value of the company using a residual income model, assuming that after 5 years residual income remains constant. The answer says the following:
The $0.44 perpetuity beginning in Year 5 is worth $4.40 ($0.44/0.1) in Year 4. The intrinsic value is V0 = 5 + [$0.25/1.1 + $0.29/1.1^2 + $0.33/1.10^3 + $0.38 + $4.40 / 1.10^4] = $8.98
My question is: why are they using terminal value year 4? Question says after year 5 residual is constant, so why are we not using terminal value year 5 = Residual income yr 6 / 1+r -1
Calculate the intrinsic value of the company using a residual income model, assuming that after 5 years residual income remains constant. The answer says the following:
The $0.44 perpetuity beginning in Year 5 is worth $4.40 ($0.44/0.1) in Year 4. The intrinsic value is V0 = 5 + [$0.25/1.1 + $0.29/1.1^2 + $0.33/1.10^3 + $0.38 + $4.40 / 1.10^4] = $8.98
My question is: why are they using terminal value year 4? Question says after year 5 residual is constant, so why are we not using terminal value year 5 = Residual income yr 6 / 1+r -1