Could some smarter guy explain this statement?
“Constant-proportion strategy would be appropriate for an investor whose risk tolerance factor rises and falls by an above average amount as her portfolio’s value fluctuates. Constant mix strategy would be appropriate for an investor whose risk tolerance factor varies proportionately with wealth”
Thank you.
“Constant-proportion strategy would be appropriate for an investor whose risk tolerance factor rises and falls by an above average amount as her portfolio’s value fluctuates. Constant mix strategy would be appropriate for an investor whose risk tolerance factor varies proportionately with wealth”
Thank you.