In currency hedging, when foreign currency’s spot rate > future rate, downward sloping, it will lead to a negative roll yield. When foreign currency’s spot rate < future rate, upward sloping, it will lead to a positive roll yield.
What’s the logic? If foreign currency’s spot rate > future rate, downward sloping, the currency will depreciate, a short position shouldn’t have a positive return? Why there will be a negative roll yield?
Why it is just opposite to commodity roll yield?
What’s the logic? If foreign currency’s spot rate > future rate, downward sloping, the currency will depreciate, a short position shouldn’t have a positive return? Why there will be a negative roll yield?
Why it is just opposite to commodity roll yield?