Schweser MC 1---- Derivs - Effective Duration WTF?

BaseballRedhawks

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Question 50……. its one of those basic questions that you adjust the fixed income weights to a portoflio.
You want to Decrease the weight so you need to sell futures.
In the first part of the fomrula, its the new Target duration - 0 / Future duration.
I’ve always seen it as 0, since you are lowering your allocation. However, in this question, they use the Effective Duration (cash equivalents and any hedged positions) = 0.25. WTF? i’ve never seen any question do this before, and they dont give you an explanation. I calculated the answer using 0, and it was one of the multiple choice options…….
Thanks!
 
cfai text does it as well. Cash is assumed to have a duration of 0.25.
 
They’ll likely tell you the duration of cash during the actual exam.
Recalling of the CFAI mocks provided the cash duration, it would be cruel to not.
 
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