I’ve just done the following problem:
Company A has USD 15M in total assets, and it has sold USD 1.5M of receivables with recourse to AZ Financiers. Had the securitized receivables been held in the balance sheet, financial leverage ratio would have:
a) Increased b) Decreased c) Stayed the same
The answer is apparently a) Increased, but there is something I don’t get. For me, if you sell a receivable to a third party you are just exchanging asset lines, so what was in receivables now is in cash, which in turn makes the financial leverage ratio (A/E) unchanged given that total assets did not change.
Of course, if Company A had sold the receivables to an SPV controlled by itself, which purchased the receivables through debt issuance, the situation would be different. However, it does not seem to be the case.
What am I missing?
Thanks
Company A has USD 15M in total assets, and it has sold USD 1.5M of receivables with recourse to AZ Financiers. Had the securitized receivables been held in the balance sheet, financial leverage ratio would have:
a) Increased b) Decreased c) Stayed the same
The answer is apparently a) Increased, but there is something I don’t get. For me, if you sell a receivable to a third party you are just exchanging asset lines, so what was in receivables now is in cash, which in turn makes the financial leverage ratio (A/E) unchanged given that total assets did not change.
Of course, if Company A had sold the receivables to an SPV controlled by itself, which purchased the receivables through debt issuance, the situation would be different. However, it does not seem to be the case.
What am I missing?
Thanks