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- Yes “The oldest shortfall risk criterion is Roy’s safety first criterion” - pg. 54, RR 18. Asset AllocationGalli wrote:
Not to derail the question but isn’t shortfall risk Roy’s saftey first criterion?
Er - MAR / standard deviation?
On pg. 54 of reading 18 - Asset Allocation, you find a write up under example 4 that identifies the method of using E(r) - 2 st. devs to calculate a particular shortfall risk. In particular, they specify -2 stdev’s as representing a 2.5% probability of falling below the expected return. The key here is the normality assumption. Hope this helps.FrankCFA wrote:
I saw the pass exam use E(R) - 2 * standard deviations to meausre the shortfall risk. But i don’t find it in CFA curriculum. Is it usually the case? Or different risk tolerence has different scale number, i.e. maybe E(R) - 5 * standard deviations.
Quote:
They indicate that the portfolio should have only a small
probability of declining more than 10% in nominal pre-tax terms in any one year. Lenard
explains to the Voorts that a normal distribution can be used to model the portfolio returns. The
Voorts agree to use a two-standard-deviation approach to monitor the shortfall risk of the
portfolio.
Thanks. But Reading 18 starts from p.175 (Curriculum)? Can’t find it….FrankCFA wrote:
On pg. 54 of reading 18 - Asset Allocation, you find a write up under example 4 that identifies the method of using E(r) - 2 st. devs to calculate a particular shortfall risk. In particular, they specify -2 stdev’s as representing a 2.5% probability of falling below the expected return. The key here is the normality assumption. Hope this helps.