Apologize, if I repeat someone’s topic
Does anyone know, how CFA scores morning session? I mean does it have some definitive answers and if candidate’s answer is different, then the answer doesn’t get any point?
I am asking because there are number of questions that can have different answers with different reasonings. So, if I respond not in a way defined by CFA, but will have valid reasoning, will I get any point?
For example:
Due to losses in the recent past portfolio did not generate sufficient returns to meet pre-specified spending objective. Moreover, donations have declined.
two options how to decrease the volatility of funding of spending expenses:
1) adopt a rolling three-year average spending rule, based on the beginning-of-year market value for the last three years;
2) decreaase the spending rate.
I have choosen option 2 with the following reasoning:
contraction of porfolio value (due to losses in recent past) coupled with the reduction in donations leads to reduction in risk tolerance and as a result to decrease in expected returns. With the descrease of spending rate liquidity needs will be reduced, commensurate with the new risk tolenace thus making it more realistic to to meet potfolio’s spending objective.
While in CFA states that option 1 is the correct answer.
So, is there a chance to get any points for my initial answer?
thanks
Does anyone know, how CFA scores morning session? I mean does it have some definitive answers and if candidate’s answer is different, then the answer doesn’t get any point?
I am asking because there are number of questions that can have different answers with different reasonings. So, if I respond not in a way defined by CFA, but will have valid reasoning, will I get any point?
For example:
Due to losses in the recent past portfolio did not generate sufficient returns to meet pre-specified spending objective. Moreover, donations have declined.
two options how to decrease the volatility of funding of spending expenses:
1) adopt a rolling three-year average spending rule, based on the beginning-of-year market value for the last three years;
2) decreaase the spending rate.
I have choosen option 2 with the following reasoning:
contraction of porfolio value (due to losses in recent past) coupled with the reduction in donations leads to reduction in risk tolerance and as a result to decrease in expected returns. With the descrease of spending rate liquidity needs will be reduced, commensurate with the new risk tolenace thus making it more realistic to to meet potfolio’s spending objective.
While in CFA states that option 1 is the correct answer.
So, is there a chance to get any points for my initial answer?
thanks