I can’t believe that I am a level 3 CFA candidate and still do not fully understand Soft Dollars. I understand trade commissions as follows.
Buy side client A buys 1 share of xyz @ 10.00 commission is 0.02 Total Cost 10.02
Sell side shop B delivers 1 share of xyz and receives 10.02.
Sell side shop B buys 1 share of xyz for 10.00 commission 0.02 Total cost 9.98
Buy side client B delivers bonds and receives 9.98
Sell side shop receives 0.04 commission which goes towards paying sales/trading and bank’s employees.
How is the 0.02 cents commissions property of Client A and Client B? If your buy side why even pay commission if it is deemed your property as client? If it is property isn’t it a disservice to buy side’s client not to credit it back or eliminate alltogether?
Have i got this all wrong? JoeyD?
Buy side client A buys 1 share of xyz @ 10.00 commission is 0.02 Total Cost 10.02
Sell side shop B delivers 1 share of xyz and receives 10.02.
Sell side shop B buys 1 share of xyz for 10.00 commission 0.02 Total cost 9.98
Buy side client B delivers bonds and receives 9.98
Sell side shop receives 0.04 commission which goes towards paying sales/trading and bank’s employees.
How is the 0.02 cents commissions property of Client A and Client B? If your buy side why even pay commission if it is deemed your property as client? If it is property isn’t it a disservice to buy side’s client not to credit it back or eliminate alltogether?
Have i got this all wrong? JoeyD?