Why are the spread durations for non US treasuries the same as their effective durations?
The question in the book says if the OAS for all bond sectors changes 60 bps while US treasury yields remain unchanged, what is the approximate % change in the portfolio?
The answer goes on to say that the calculation and change from a uniform widening of 60 bps in all spreads is the same as if the yield curve had shifted with no change in the spreads.
The question in the book says if the OAS for all bond sectors changes 60 bps while US treasury yields remain unchanged, what is the approximate % change in the portfolio?
The answer goes on to say that the calculation and change from a uniform widening of 60 bps in all spreads is the same as if the yield curve had shifted with no change in the spreads.