Reading 23, practice problem 22 says:
Exhibit 1
Japan Singapore US
Yield on 10 yr gov bond% 1.67 2.74 4.62
10 yr bond duration 9.12 8.19 7.79
For invstors that purchased 10-year USA notes, the spread widening in bp that will wipe out the additional yield gained for a quarter is closest to?
1. The answer uses the additional yield for US minus Japan per quarter = (4.62 - 1.67) / 4 =.7.75%. Then divide this by the higher of the two countries’ duration, 7375/9.12=8.09
But why are they using Japan, when the question doesn’t mention Japan?
2. Why do we use the higher of the two countries’ duration?
Exhibit 1
Japan Singapore US
Yield on 10 yr gov bond% 1.67 2.74 4.62
10 yr bond duration 9.12 8.19 7.79
For invstors that purchased 10-year USA notes, the spread widening in bp that will wipe out the additional yield gained for a quarter is closest to?
1. The answer uses the additional yield for US minus Japan per quarter = (4.62 - 1.67) / 4 =.7.75%. Then divide this by the higher of the two countries’ duration, 7375/9.12=8.09
But why are they using Japan, when the question doesn’t mention Japan?
2. Why do we use the higher of the two countries’ duration?