I have been reading Non Current Liabilities and have a couple of questions. It would be great help if someone could please explain.
Firstly, why is interest payement an operating cash flow and not an operating expenditure? It doesn’t really make sense.
Secondly, in US GAAP, there are two types of leases, sales type lease and direct financing lease. In the former, present value of lease payments are greater than book value. While in direct financing lease, the two values are equal. My question is, why would a firm get into a direct finance lease if it isn’t getting any profit?
Firstly, why is interest payement an operating cash flow and not an operating expenditure? It doesn’t really make sense.
Secondly, in US GAAP, there are two types of leases, sales type lease and direct financing lease. In the former, present value of lease payments are greater than book value. While in direct financing lease, the two values are equal. My question is, why would a firm get into a direct finance lease if it isn’t getting any profit?